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Premarital Sex, A Sin?
The Bible was written mainly in two languages: Hebrew (Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament). But we English speakers have to rely on interpretations of what the scriptures say based on the translations used to define the terms. Unfortunately, many of the translations of these terms are considerably removed from the exact meaning of the original words. Then we have new versions of the Bible that are even further away from the original text that give the reader a totally different interpretation of what the scripture means.
Hebrew and Greek have precise meanings of the words they define. If the translations of these terms are not as accurate as the original words used, they lead to misinformation and a lack of understanding of God’s word and completely new doctrines arise that are the antithesis of God’s original intent.
The other aspect of this is taking the translation of terms out of historical context. If God gives us information in precise terms within the historical context in which it was written, and you change the meaning of the words by mistranslation without regard to their historical context, you change the whole dynamic of that piece of scripture and therefore strange teachings evolve. which form the “traditions of men”.
Take for example the following passage of Scripture:
“There shall be no harlot among the daughters of Israel, nor sodomite among the sons of Israel.” – Deuteronomy 23:17-18
What does it mean? Using our language to decipher this passage of scripture and not examining it with the historical context in which it was written, you would think it says “no woman can be a harlot who is a daughter of Israel and no man can be homosexual let him be a son of Israel,” right?
But this is not the correct interpretation. The reason is because the term “whore” and the term “sodomite” are not properly translated from the Hebrew.
How do you know which definition is correct? “whore” i “sodomite” are they You should look up the Hebrew word for it. And the best site is Strong’s Numbers. Strong’s numbers are an index to each word in the original Bible text.
Strong’s numbers for “whore” in Hebrew it is H6948 and the word is DYCWpronounced Ked-ay-shaw’ and means “temple harlot, harlot”
Strong’s number for “sodomite” is H6945 and the word is GAMEpronounced kaw-dashe’ and means “prostitute of the temple”.
So now, we have the passage corrected as follows:
“There shall be no (temple harlot) of the daughters of Israel, nor (temple harlot) of the sons of Israel.” – Deuteronomy 23:17-18
Do you see the difference? And it also makes more sense within the historical context in which it was written. We don’t talk about whores in general or homosexuals.
If you take the first translation of this passage of scripture, you would think that God did not want any whores or homosexuals in Israel. But the second and more accurate translation specifically shows that there will be no PROSTITUTES IN THE TEMPLE. Why only temple prostitutes and not all prostitutes? Well, find that in the historical context in which it was written. Deuteronomy 23 was concerned with instructions regarding the assembly of the congregation of Israel and various laws. And temple prostitutes are a form of pagan idolatry worship.
But prostitutes under certain conditions were not considered an abomination to God. In fact, many of the great men of the Bible went “to” whores without consequence, as long as they were not married.
This raises the question of why sex before marriage is not a sin. We’ve all been taught that it is. We even see the term fornication (sexual relations between couples who are not married to each other) used more than 40 times in the New Testament where the apostle Paul tells us to “flee from fornication.” But guess what? Fornication is a substitution of the original Greek word, porn.
Fornication has a broader definition than fornication and means “sexual immortality”. But what is sexual immorality? According to God, all sexually immoral sins are defined in Leviticus 18. You have to remember that the New Testament wasn’t even written until many years after Jesus died. Therefore, to find the laws about anything, the apostle Paul would go back to the Torah. And premarital sex is not part of the definition of porn.
Nowhere in Scripture is premarital sex (outside of virgins in their father’s house) mentioned as sinful or sexually immoral. This doctrine has come about either by falsely misrepresenting the truth based on an incorrect substitution of terms, or by not examining the historical context and the Old Testament to see what God reveals.
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